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Re: Hebrew and Conlangs

From:Eamon Graham <robertg@...>
Date:Thursday, February 27, 2003, 16:34
An interesting and basic discussion of the differences between
Biblical and Modern Hebrew that makes brief mention of Ben Yehuda
can be found at:

http://foundationstone.com.au/HtmlSupport/OnlineHebrewTutorial/Html/15_Lesson.html

It has an interesting discussion of vav consecutive...

Incidentally, does anyone know a place on the web where I might find
a more in depth discussion of the differences between the two, the
evolution of Modern Hebrew (and intermediate forms) and Ben Yehuda?

Yitzik wrote:

> 2. she is heavily a posteriori, her grammar being based on Mishnaitic > Hebrew, and vocabulary gathered from any possible source, or *constructed*;
A book we have at the library here (I forget the title and author, sorry!) mentions many of the ways Ben Yehuda derived some of these words and they are quite ingenious. In addition to reviving obsolete or archaic vocabulary (sometimes with change or expansion of semantic range), borrowing (especially from Aramaic and Arabic) or by using analogy with Aramaic and Arabic...
> Marginal note: an Israeli friend of mine tells, that in his grandpa's days > (under the British mandate) one could easily be smashed into face for > speaking Yiddish in the Land, and while the person was being beaten, he was > told: "Y'hudi, daber 3ivrit!" (Jew, speak Ivrit!). No comments.
I've just finished reading "The Jewish State" by Herzl and unless I misread or misunderstood, he was against using a revived Hebrew. Was this a common attitude at the beginnings of Zionism? How did the linguistic attitude in your anecdote come about I wonder? Cheers, Eamon

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Jake X <starvingpoet@...>