Re: USAGE: -i/yse vs -i/yze in England (and what the heck, NZ too).
| From: | Vasiliy Chernov <bc_@...> |
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| Date: | Friday, December 14, 2001, 19:37 |
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On Thu, 13 Dec 2001 20:17:28 -0000, Michael Poxon <m.poxon@...>
wrote:
>The "proper" version is supposed to be -ize, from Greek verbs ending
>in -izein, but in this day and age I don't think anyone worries too much!
>Mike
OTOH this category of verbs came via Latin, and Latin seems sometimes to
borrow Greek verbs basing on the sigmatic aorist (ending in -isa in this
case).
Basilius
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