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Re: Ergativity and verb forms

From:Garth Wallace <gwalla@...>
Date:Sunday, June 20, 2004, 2:14
Arthaey Angosii wrote:

> Emaelivpeith Mark Line: > >>Google for 'anaphora'. That's when you're invoking a referent that was >>introduced earlier in the text (or discourse, if you prefer). > > > By SIL's definition of anaphora, a pronoun needs to be used. Would my > examples count as zero anaphora?
Hm? I don't see in their glossary <> that anaphora requires a pronoun. That would seem kind of silly...that would mean that the person-agreement on verbs would not be anaphora, but there doesn't seem to be any reason not to think that they are.