Re: Ergativity and verb forms
|From:||Garth Wallace <gwalla@...>|
|Date:||Sunday, June 20, 2004, 2:14|
Arthaey Angosii wrote:
> Emaelivpeith Mark Line:
>>Google for 'anaphora'. That's when you're invoking a referent that was
>>introduced earlier in the text (or discourse, if you prefer).
> By SIL's definition of anaphora, a pronoun needs to be used. Would my
> examples count as zero anaphora?
Hm? I don't see in their glossary
that anaphora requires a pronoun. That would seem kind of silly...that
would mean that the person-agreement on verbs would not be anaphora, but
there doesn't seem to be any reason not to think that they are.