Re: Ergativity and verb forms
| From: | Garth Wallace <gwalla@...> |
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| Date: | Sunday, June 20, 2004, 2:14 |
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Arthaey Angosii wrote:
> Emaelivpeith Mark Line:
>
>>Google for 'anaphora'. That's when you're invoking a referent that was
>>introduced earlier in the text (or discourse, if you prefer).
>
>
> By SIL's definition of anaphora, a pronoun needs to be used. Would my
> examples count as zero anaphora?
Hm? I don't see in their glossary
<http://www.sil.org/linguistics/GlossaryOfLinguisticTerms/WhatIsAnaphora.htm>
that anaphora requires a pronoun. That would seem kind of silly...that
would mean that the person-agreement on verbs would not be anaphora, but
there doesn't seem to be any reason not to think that they are.