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Re: THEORY: ambisyllabicity & gemmination (long)

From:Raymond Brown <ray.brown@...>
Date:Sunday, October 15, 2000, 6:45
Thanks for the very helpful reply - Sorry I haven't responded sooner, but
pressure of work put me into 'lurker mode' for much of last week.

At 12:50 pm -0600 10/10/00, dirk elzinga wrote:
>On Sat, 7 Oct 2000, Raymond Brown wrote:
[...]
>> English ambisyllabic consonants masy be "geminates in disguise", whatever >> that means, but they most certainly are not geminates. The /p/ in _happy_ >> /'h@pi/ is one of these so-called ambisyllabic consonants. It is very >> different from the /p/ in Welsh _hapus_ (happy) /'hap1s/ where /p/ is >> pronounced [pp_h] and gemination is as clearly marked as it is in, e.g. >> Italian _cappa_ (cape, cloak). > >Is _hapus_ the spelling of the word in Welsh? If so, how is gemination >marked? In Italian, gemination is marked in the orthography by >doubling the letter, but I don't see this doubling in the Welsh word. >Or are you using "marked" in the Praguean sense?
No, I think not. Sorry - I wasn't using 'marked' in a technical sense. I should, I guess, have said 'perceptible' in pronunciation. It's a conditioned allophone pf /p/. After a stressed vowel, the voiceless plosives are always pronounced geminate with aspiration as the onset of the following syllable. Thus, e.g. _ateb_ ['att_he:b] "answer"
>> Ignoring the question of morae, and just thinking in terms of syllabic >> onset, nucleus and coda, presumably Dirk's analysis above would mean that >> the Welsh word would be represented thus: >> s s >> /|\ /|\ >> o n c o n c >> | | |/ | | >> h a p 1 s >> >> Does that mean that the English word is: >> s s >> /|\ /|\ >> o n c o n c >> | | \| | | >> h @ p i 0 [0 = zero element"] ? > >I'm not sure I understand the significance of the representational >distinctions you make here between
Nor I - merely guessing :)
> c o c o > |/ and \| ; they are the same. > p p
OK - I accept that. [...]
> >In a theory which does not recognize moras, I would insert a "timing >tier". The timing tier is a level which represents segmental "place- >holders". So your Welsh representation would be minimally altered to >the following: > > s s > /|\ /|\ > o n c o n c > | | | | | | > x x x x x x > | | \ / | | > h a p 1 s > >Gemination is shown in such a theory by doubly linking a single >feature bundle (labial, voiceless, stop; here represented by /p/) >with two timing units.
Yep - that makes more sense, I think, especially in the Welsh case where [pp_h] is a conditioned allophone of /p/.
>> Also, is the /p/ in English _happy_ really ambisyllabic? > >Well, this is one of the Big Questions of English phonology.
I know ;)
>I'm >inclined to think that /p/ isn't ambisyllabic, and that there is no >such thing as genuine ambisyllabicity.
That's, as you know, been my inclination as an amateur linguist - nice to find a professional linguist taking a similar view. Tho it seems to lead us to different conclusions regarding _happy_. [snip]
>In his book, _The Phonology of English_, Mike Hammond marshalls a vast >array of distributional evidence to argue for the representation which >you reject; viz. [h@p.i].
That division seems more in keeping with [&p?i] which is not unknown in the London area. Ray. ========================================= A mind which thinks at its own expense will always interfere with language. [J.G. Hamann 1760] =========================================