Re: Creole vs. Pidgin
From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
Date: | Friday, July 23, 1999, 1:31 |
Tom Wier wrote:
> Usually, and more importantly, unlike
> natural languages which one speaks from birth, pidgins tend to tolerate a
> very high degree of variation within the language in terms of what's
> grammatical and what isn't.
Tend to, but not always. For instance, in Bislama, pronouns
obligatorily mark number (singular/dual/trial/plural) and
inclusive/exclusive in the first person, thus:
Person Singular Dual Trial Plural
1 excl mi mitupela mitripela mipela
1 incl yumi(tupela) yumitripela yumipela
2 yu yutupela yutripela yupela
3 em tupela tripela olgeta
From what I understand, if you're referring to three people in the
second person, you *must* say _yutripela_, you cannot simply say
_yupela_.
> The critical difference between a creole and a pidgin is that a creole is
> a pidgin which has gained a large enough* body of native speakers, such
> as Tok Pisin in New Guinea, to become "self-actualized"
In most uses, but I've seen _creole_ used for contact languages with no
native speakers
--
"[H]e axed after eggys: And the goode wyf answerde, that she coude not
speke no Frenshe ... And then at last a nother sayd that he woulde haue
hadde eyren: then the goode wyf sayd that she vnderstood hym wel." --
William Caxton
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