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"A" Personal in Spanish (was - Redundant pronouns, Tagalog,etc.)

From:Pablo Flores <fflores@...>
Date:Tuesday, February 16, 1999, 14:57
vardi <vardi@...> wrote:
> Steg Belsky wrote:
[snip]
> > > > I don't know that much about Arabic, but could the _a personal_ in > > Spanish be some kind of incomplete influence from Semitic languages? > > Hebrew has a direct object marker, _et_, so i'd assume Arabic has one > > too...and i don't see why the Arabic influence on Spanish would be > > limited to just all those vocabulary words which begin with "al" :) > > > > -Stephen (Steg) > > > > Arabic doesn't have an equivalent of the "et" marker (had he known this, > maybe Ben Gurion would have been a bit more pro-Arab - he hated "et" and > advocated its virtual elimination from Hebrew, as Steg may well be > aware). >
[snip]
> > But I think the Arabic influence in Spanish goes way beyond "al-" words. > For example, this business of tagging object suffixes onto verbs (my > active Spanish isn't that good, but I mean things like "darme," > "digame") has always seemed to me to be Semitic influence. > > Shaul
Oh, Arabic influence probably went much more into Spanish than it seems (not only words, and not only beginning with "al-"). But I doubt that this clitic attaching is Arabic, because it's present in all Romance langs. The real thing is that the personal _a_ can't be equated to Hebrew _et_ because in Spanish _a_ it's an *indirect* object marker, which is also used to mark animate direct objects. This must come from Latin, which I don't know enough about. Could it be that Latin _ad_ (> Spanish _a_) was used to mark some animate objects, with a different meaning than the simple accusative, and then this mark spread to *all* animate objects? --Pablo Flores