Re: USAGE: syllables
From: | BP Jonsson <bpj@...> |
Date: | Friday, June 13, 2003, 16:39 |
At 09:59 13.6.2003 +0100, Daniel Andreasson Vpc-Work wrote:
>And a comment on John Cowan's Latin -> Sardinian example. Swedish
>had the opposite development in some words.
>
>'hårde' [ho:d`E] --> [ho:l`E] --> 'håle' [ho:lE]
Actually the case was that in some dialects *hQ:rDe became [ho:r`e]
rather than [ho:d`e]. Later, after /l/ and /r`/ had merged as
[r`] in the *rD > [r`] dialects it was borrowed into *rD > [d`]
dialects as /ho:le/. Also note that although it is *rD > [d`]
dialects that underlie the modern standard the *rD > [r`] dialects
are historically more widespread; or to put it more generally the
*D, *G > 0 dialects are historically more widespread than the
*D, *G > d g dialects.
OTOH Sogdian, an extinct East Iranian language had *D > /l/, or
at least the reflex of Iranian *D was written with the Aramaic
letter Lamad. Also Paali and other Middle Indo-Aryan languages
frequently write |l`| for the intervocalic reflex of Sanskrit
/d`/. Likewise Vedic -- a sister dialect of the dialect Sanskrit
was developed from -- systematically has /l`/ in place of Sanskrit
/d`/.
/BP 8^)
--
B.Philip Jonsson mailto:melrochX@melroch.se (delete X)
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