| From: | caeruleancentaur <caeruleancentaur@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Tuesday, November 28, 2006, 20:25 |
>>Dirk Elzinga <dirk.elzinga@...> wrote:>> -eth was (is) always syllabic, so authors in the 16th and 17th >> centuries had the choice to use it when rhythm was an issue.>"Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> wrote:>I considered that possibility, as well; it might apply to "sings" vs >"singeth", but clearly not to "does" vs "doth"...However, both "doest" and "doeth" occur(ed), as well as "dost" and "doth." Charlie http://wiki.frath.net/senjecas