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Re: Borrowing a word

From:Isaac Penzev <isaacp@...>
Date:Friday, August 22, 2003, 6:42
Isidora Zamora dagizhe:

> At 06:03 PM 8/21/03 +0300, you wrote: > >Andreas Johansson dagizhe: > > > > > Reminds me; how can a labiodental fricative possibly be labialized? > > > >In Russian *all* consonants are strongly labialized before /u/, so one can > >compare initial sounds in _fára_ ["far@] 'headlight' and _fúga_ ["fug@] > >'fugue'. > >The latter definitely has smth like [f_w]. Surely, the difference is not > >phonemic... > > But in Margi (spoken in West Africa), the labialization is phonemic, and > "Margi has a full suite of labialized labials," including f_w and v_w, > according to _Phonology in Generative Grammar_, by Michael Kenstowicz, p. 41.
I merely mean that the opposition is not phonemic in *Russian*. But since the opposition *does* exist and is easily heard and reproduced, why cannot it exist somewhere as *phonemic* one? Side note: my latest project bears a provisional name "Magri". Is there something in the air? :)
> Isidora
~~~~~~Yitzik~~~~~~