Re: Emphasis allophonies?
From: | Paul Bennett <paul.bennett@...> |
Date: | Thursday, September 16, 1999, 20:40 |
Raymond A. Brown wrote:
>At 2:19 pm -0500 16/9/99, Eric Christopherson wrote:
>[snip]
>>I've noticed that when people emphasize English words which use [4]
>>(alveolar tap) or [d] for /t/, they sometimes use [t] (as in <little>=
,
>>usually ["lIdl=3D] but emphasized ["lItl=3D]).
>
>To which at 8:38 pm +0100 16/9/99, Paul Bennett replied:
>>I'd say that's a very USAcentric notion, or at least North-America-ce=
ntric.
>
>So would I :)
>
>Here in SE England the usual pronunciation is [lI?l=3D] or, especially=
in the
>London area, [lI?w] - whether the word is emphasized or not.
>
>Ray.
[?_t] (which I originally wrote as ['_t]) is the sound I'd have said wa=
s used
here in SE England. I (and others) produce glottal sounds for both /t/=
and /k/.
In carefull colloquial speech (???) I can differentiate between the thr=
ee sounds
[?] (purely glottal, in "uh-oh"), [?_k] (back of tongue raised, in "wak=
e up")
and [?_t] (tip of tongue in alveolar position, in "water"). Neverthele=
ss, the
ponetic influence of the _k and _t are very small, but discernable.
Ooh, blast and darn! [?_k] might actually be [k=AC] (velar stop with no=
audible
release), and [?_t] might be [?_4].
---
Pb
"Every time I learn something new, it pushes some old stuff out of my b=
rain!" --
Homer Simpson
=
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