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Re: THEORY: Four-valent Clauses

From:taliesin the storyteller <taliesin-conlang@...>
Date:Saturday, August 6, 2005, 22:44
* tomhchappell said on 2005-07-29 20:14:36 +0200
> Thanks for writing, David. > --- In conlang@yahoogroups.com, "David J. Peterson" <dedalvs@G...> > > wrote: > > Tom wrote: > > << > >> Is every example of a Four-Argument Verb, in a language with > >> either > >> Causatives or Applicatives or both? > >> Does every Four-Argument Clause come from either Causativizing or > >> Applicativizing a Ditransitive Clause? > > >> > > > > Umm...no? Isn't something like "rent" a four argument predicate > > that's neither a causative nor an applicative? > > Not in any language I know about. > > > That is, "I (1) rented > > you (2) a car (3) for five dollars (4)." > > It is just this kind of transaction that Ray Jackendoff (sp?) says > is, semantically, a four-place predicate. > But semantics isn't grammar, as he points out.
Another example used for a four/five-way argument predicate in English is "bet": I(1) bet you(2) five dollars(3) on that dog(4) [to win(5)]. If you don't add in something to stand in for at least 4, 4 needs, 100%, to be supplied by context. I(1) bet you(2) five dollars(3) on that dog(4). works too. Actually, it's the 2 that is easily droppable. t.