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USAGE: CHAT Hellenika (was: USAGE: Circumfixes)

From:Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>
Date:Wednesday, May 12, 2004, 18:05
On Tuesday, May 11, 2004, at 10:41 PM, Richard Wordingham wrote:

> --- In, Ray Brown <ray.brown@F...> wrote:
>> the -a- seems to have spread to other personal endings on the > analogy of >> the 1st person -a <-- /m=/. > > But the 1s perfect ending comes from *-h2a, with no trace of a > nasal. (I think the crucial evidence comes from Old Irish, with > further but weak support from Latin 1s perfect -i:.) Where does the > 1s -a < *[m=] come in? The aorist?
Yes - sorry, I was talking about the 'weak' or sigmatic aorist forms, not the perfect tense.
> In the surviving athematic > imperfects (as well as the thematic imprefects) we have 1s -n < * > [m].
Yep - and -*sm > -sa.
> At least the vowel would have got some reinforcements from 2s > *-th2a in the perfect. That may have been quite popular at one > time - it crops up outside the perfect in the form -stha in a few > places in irregular Greek conjugation.
Yes - there was probably cross influencing going on all the time between the weak aorist & the perfect endings.
>> The 3rd singular was -e and has remained so till the present. > > Which makes it difficult to see -a- as the _tense_ morpheme - but it > is the clearest marker except in the 3s!
Yes - and the -a- did get extended by analogy in forms like 'e:lthas' "you came" etc. and this has continued, as you observed, so that in the modern language we have -a- in in the imperfect except for 3s as well. [snip]
> I meant, 'How plausible as a natlang would a conlang identical to > Classical Greek be if we didn't know Greek?'.
Sorry - misunderstood you. Dunno - but no one would be able to claim it was a engelang or loglang - it'd be about as arty as an artlang could be ;) Ray =============================================== (home) (work) =============================================== "A mind which thinks at its own expense will always interfere with language." J.G. Hamann, 1760