Re: Consonant diacritics (was: Optimum number of symbols)

Dan Sulani scripsit:

>     This suggests that as recent as Greek-Roman times, Hebrew still possesed
> a lateral-fricative.
There is no reason to think that the Greek word derives directly from Hebrew.
It was probably borrowed from a now-extinct South Arabian language.

> [W]as the "l" simply added in order to satisfy Greek phonological rules?
No, there is no such rule.

--
John Cowan <jcowan@...>     http://www.reutershealth.com
I amar prestar aen, han mathon ne nen,    http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
han mathon ne chae, a han noston ne 'wilith.  --Galadriel, _LOTR:FOTR_