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Re: Quryak (Was:Re: Another Orthography Question)

From:Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...>
Date:Friday, November 20, 1998, 23:37
Frank George Valoczy wrote:
> Hungarian has only one class of verbs; ie. no distinction is made btw. > transitive and intransitive verbs. I don't know how to explain it; maybe > if you'd specify what you don't understand?
Do you mean that the same word is used, for example, for "die" and "kill"? -- "It has occured to me more than once that holy boredom is good and sufficient reason for the invention of free will." - "Lord Leto II" (Dune Chronicles, by Frank Herbert) ICQ #: 18656696 AOL screen-name: NikTailor