Re: Quryak (Was:Re: Another Orthography Question)
|From:||Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...>|
|Date:||Friday, November 20, 1998, 23:37|
Frank George Valoczy wrote:
> Hungarian has only one class of verbs; ie. no distinction is made btw.
> transitive and intransitive verbs. I don't know how to explain it; maybe
> if you'd specify what you don't understand?
Do you mean that the same word is used, for example, for "die" and
"It has occured to me more than once that holy boredom is good and
sufficient reason for the invention of free will." - "Lord Leto II"
(Dune Chronicles, by Frank Herbert)
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