Re: Quryak (Was:Re: Another Orthography Question)
From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
Date: | Friday, November 20, 1998, 23:37 |
Frank George Valoczy wrote:
> Hungarian has only one class of verbs; ie. no distinction is made btw.
> transitive and intransitive verbs. I don't know how to explain it; maybe
> if you'd specify what you don't understand?
Do you mean that the same word is used, for example, for "die" and
"kill"?
--
"It has occured to me more than once that holy boredom is good and
sufficient reason for the invention of free will." - "Lord Leto II"
(Dune Chronicles, by Frank Herbert)
http://members.tripod.com/~Nik_Taylor/X-Files/
ICQ #: 18656696
AOL screen-name: NikTailor