Re: Quryak (Was:Re: Another Orthography Question)
|From:||Frank George Valoczy <valoczy@...>|
|Date:||Saturday, November 21, 1998, 1:06|
On Fri, 20 Nov 1998, Nik Taylor wrote:
> Frank George Valoczy wrote:
> > Hungarian has only one class of verbs; ie. no distinction is made btw.
> > transitive and intransitive verbs. I don't know how to explain it; maybe
> > if you'd specify what you don't understand?
> Do you mean that the same word is used, for example, for "die" and
No, we do have separate words for that, becuase those are different
What I mean is that where in English you have the same word, but are used
differently (syntactically) if it is transitive or intransitive.
I was talking not long ago about this with my ling prof, and he said it's
rather interesting. I gave him some examples, but I can't remember them
off the top of my head. Give me some time and I'll tell yoyu.
Ferenc Gy. Valoczy
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