Re: /T/ -> /t_d/?
From: | Benct Philip Jonsson <bpj@...> |
Date: | Friday, October 29, 2004, 20:37 |
Carsten Becker wrote:
> Hello!
>
> I have got two maybe a little stupid questions.
>
> My first question is whether ...
>
> (A) it would be likely that /T/ changes into /t_d/?
It happened in the mainland Scandinavian languages,
cf. Eng. _thing_, Ger. _Ding_ Sw. _ting_.
> My naming language Ambrian has /T/ and /t/, but Ayeri has
> only got /t_d/. Nevertheless I think /t_d/ can develop
> easily to a fricative. So would it be ...
>
> (B) sensible at all to have a sound change if the language
> at least in some dialects accepts /T/ (the ones near to
> the area where Ambrian is/was spoken? I guess /T/ would
> change to /s/ in conservative dialects, just like many
> Germans do because they're ashamed to pronounce /T/.
I don't know about shame, but there are instances of
*[T] > [s] in Middle Persian, although you also get
*[T] > [h] in some cases, as well as *[s] > [h] in
most cases. Ergo you get cases of *[T] > [h] spelled
|s|.
--
/BP 8^)
--
Benct Philip Jonsson -- melroch at melroch dot se
Solitudinem faciunt pacem appellant!
(Tacitus)