Re: Unmarked definiteness

Andreas Johansson scripsit:

> Now, while it's not hard to see how this state of affairs came about -
> phonetic change simply ate the definite marker alive, but only snatched
> a leg from the indefinite one - but nonetheless seems remarkable;
> normally, we'd expect the indefinite to be the less marked form,
> wouldn't we? Is there any other languages which do the same?
Persian is a well-known case:  -i marks indefiniteness, zero marks
definiteness.

--
Go, and never darken my towels again!           John Cowan
        --Rufus T. Firefly                      www.ccil.org/~cowan