Re: OT: Blond(e) (Was Re: Genitives and Possessive Adjectives)
From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
Date: | Thursday, February 26, 2004, 13:00 |
On Thu, Feb 26, 2004 at 05:18:54AM -0500, David Peterson wrote:
> I'd like to see proof that this *ever* existed in English, personally. As
> far as I've ever known, "blond" and "blonde" are simply two ways to spell
> the same word, in English (not in French). Why would this word have been
> borrowed exactly, when so many other French adjectives weren't? (grand
> vs. grande, long vs. longue [I think], facil vs. facile, etc.) Anyone
> have any info on this? 'Cause if this did exist in English (and if only
> Henry James did this, it doesn't count as existing in English), I think
> that'd be very interesting.
Didn't we talk about this not too long ago on here? I was taught
in school (USA, Georgia, government school system) that "blond" referred
to a male and "blonde" to a female, and likewise "brunet" and
"brunette", and my English teachers would correct a misgendered use of
either term in any writing we turned in.
-Mark