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Re: Another English History Question (YAEHQ?)

From:Elliott Lash <erelion12@...>
Date:Monday, August 7, 2006, 21:20
I can't comment on the diachronic situation, but I do
know that the French reflex of Latin inducere would
have been * Latin conducere > conduire
Another possibility would have been *enduisir, like
the contrast between Old French plaire and plaisir
both from < placere. It seems weird that Merriam
Webster would say that the French was inducer, but
maybe Anglo-Norman is somewhat different.


--- "Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> wrote:

> In modern English, you can induce a current or > induct a member; either act > is an example of induction. (If you induce a > reaction, though, that's > generally an inducement instead.) Similarly, you > can deduce a fact or > deduct an expense, and either way you have a > deduction. > > Synchronically, these appear to be cases of > derivational morphology > triggering collisions in the forms of otherwise > distinct words. But what is > the diachronic situation? Did these pairs originate > as the same word and > then diverge along semantic grounds? Or perhaps the > two were borrowed at > different times and/or from different languages with > cognate forms? (Say, > oh, I dunno, just to pick a pair at random, Latin > and French)? > > Or did we get similar results from different paths? > Based on the etymology > in M-W, the bilingual answer is correct in the case > of "induce/"induct": > both ultimately derive from Latin "inducere", but > the former entered English > only after becoming French "inducer", while the > latter came directly from > the Latin past participle "inductus". But > apparently "deduce" and "deduct" > both came directly from Latin, one from the > infinitive and the other from > the participle, with no French involvement.. So > were both meanings valid > glosses of the Latin as well? > > -- > Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> >
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