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Re: OT: Latin subject-verb agreement

Date:Thursday, December 13, 2007, 2:05
In a message dated 12/12/2007 7:59:40 PM Central Standard Time,
conlang@CASSOWARY.ORG writes:

> Just like "I" isn't exactly the nominative first person singular > pronoun, "am" isn't exactly the first person singular form of "to be". >
But they are! What am I missing? stevo </HTML>


T. A. McLeay <conlang@...>