Re: THEORY: Sound changes in literate societies

| -----Original Message-----
| From: Thomas R. Wier
| Subject: Re: Sound changes in literate societies
|
| Quoting "Karapcik, Mike" <KarapcM@...>:
| >  According to the book "Applied Linguistics",
| > which I read a year ago, the changes are
| > motivated by the middle class.
|
| I have to wonder: since the Middle Class in most western countries
| makes up the vast majority of the population (in the US, more than
| 80%), how can we distinguish something caused by the "middle class"
| and something that just happens randomly throughout the population,
| and by virtue of their numerical preponderance is most likely to
| occur among Middle Class speakers?

        From what I recall, it's a matter of the Middle Class trying to look
like Upper Class as part of an attempt to better themselves, or appear to do
so.
        The Upper Class are a very small minority, and are simply too rich
to care about "commoners". While they try to maintain their own
socio-cultural identity, often their possessions, dress, accessories, and
transportation make their class obvious. In situations where the accent does
change to set them off from the commoners (New England accents were given by
the book as examples), they do so in reaction to the Middle Class, to get
away from them.
        The Middle Class try to mimic Upper Class speech, since it is
associated with an expensive education.
        The Lower Class, when in a formal situation, mimics the Middle
Class, while the Middle Class itself is trying to look Upper Class-ish.

        Thus, most changes are driven by the Middle Class attempting to
better itself, the Lower Class following the Upper Class in social settings,
and the Upper Class trying to get away from the Middle Class.

        "Applied Linguistics" was written in the late 60's, so the general
theory may have changed since then. Also, much of the research it cites is
British, though not all.

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