Re: THEORY: Sound changes in literate societies
From: | Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, June 26, 2002, 18:04 |
Quoting wayne chevrier <wachevrier@...>:
> "Karapcik, Mike" nevesht:
> >
> > According to the book "Applied Linguistics", which I read a year
> > ago, the changes are motivated by the middle class.
>
> Maybe in some instances, but historically most cultures haven't had a
> middle class, yet their languages changed.
Right. In some societies, the very notion of a Middle Class didn't
even exist, either because social stratification was almost nonexistent,
or because mercantile society (which historically leads to the presence
of a middle class) didn't exist. In other words, the author of this
book on applied linguistics was propounding a theory of language
change that accounts only for a small percentage of the human
experience, and is in any case dubious for reasons I have already
pointed out in other posts.
=====================================================================
Thomas Wier "...koruphàs hetéras hetére:isi prosápto:n /
Dept. of Linguistics mú:tho:n mè: teléein atrapòn mían..."
University of Chicago "To join together diverse peaks of thought /
1010 E. 59th Street and not complete one road that has no turn"
Chicago, IL 60637 Empedocles, _On Nature_, on speculative thinkers
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