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Re: THEORY: Sound changes in literate societies

From:Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>
Date:Wednesday, June 26, 2002, 18:04
Quoting wayne chevrier <wachevrier@...>:

> "Karapcik, Mike" nevesht: > > > > According to the book "Applied Linguistics", which I read a year > > ago, the changes are motivated by the middle class. > > Maybe in some instances, but historically most cultures haven't had a > middle class, yet their languages changed.
Right. In some societies, the very notion of a Middle Class didn't even exist, either because social stratification was almost nonexistent, or because mercantile society (which historically leads to the presence of a middle class) didn't exist. In other words, the author of this book on applied linguistics was propounding a theory of language change that accounts only for a small percentage of the human experience, and is in any case dubious for reasons I have already pointed out in other posts. ===================================================================== Thomas Wier "...koruphàs hetéras hetére:isi prosápto:n / Dept. of Linguistics mú:tho:n mè: teléein atrapòn mían..." University of Chicago "To join together diverse peaks of thought / 1010 E. 59th Street and not complete one road that has no turn" Chicago, IL 60637 Empedocles, _On Nature_, on speculative thinkers

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Pavel Iosad <pavel_iosad@...>