Re: Infinitives vs verbal nouns (WAS: Re: Celtic and Afro-Asiatic?)
| From: | R A Brown <ray@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Thursday, September 15, 2005, 8:21 |
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Andreas Johansson wrote:
>Quoting Jörg Rhiemeier <joerg_rhiemeier@...>:
>
>
>
>>>10) Verbal Noun (Vn: object in genitive), not Infinitive
>>> (object in same case as with finite verb).
>>>
>>>
>
>Hm. By this definition, both the "infinitive" and "gerund" of Tairezazh are
>Infinitives.
>
>
In any case the description of the 'verbal noun' is arguable. My
analysis is that the genitive is a subjective genitive, the verbnoun
being passive in meaning if the verb is transitive.
--
Ray
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