Re: Infinitives vs verbal nouns (WAS: Re: Celtic and Afro-Asiatic?)
|From:||R A Brown <ray@...>|
|Date:||Thursday, September 15, 2005, 8:21|
Andreas Johansson wrote:
>Quoting Jörg Rhiemeier <joerg_rhiemeier@...>:
>>>10) Verbal Noun (Vn: object in genitive), not Infinitive
>>> (object in same case as with finite verb).
>Hm. By this definition, both the "infinitive" and "gerund" of Tairezazh are
>In any case the description of the 'verbal noun' is arguable. My
analysis is that the genitive is a subjective genitive, the verbnoun
being passive in meaning if the verb is transitive.
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