From: | Doug Ball <db001i@...> |
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Date: | Sunday, April 16, 2000, 15:45 |
Sorry, if this topic has been beaten to death in years past, but what is the connection between the ergative and genitive--in more precise terms why do ergative forms of pronouns in Mayan languages also get used as possessive adjectives? And isn't their something in Indo-European Linguistics about a relation between the one-time ergative and the genitive? -Doug