Re: coexisting case question
| From: | Eldin Raigmore <eldin_raigmore@...> |
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| Date: | Tuesday, September 9, 2008, 16:29 |
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On Tue, 9 Sep 2008 13:44:52 +0200, Henrik Theiling <theiling@...>
wrote:
>'Construct state'. It is a different category from 'case'. In
>Arabic, nouns are inflected for both: state and case, so you can
>have a word in construct state in genitive case (which Arabic also
>has).
>**Henrik
Also, Akkadian (which is another Semitic language) could have possessive
phrases in which the possessor was in the genitive case and the thing
possessed was in the construct state. (Not that I know Akkadian; I just
remember seeing that fact on the CONLANG List sometime before.)
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As for Rene's other ideas; what everyone else has said (though I say it with
much less authority!) Go for it, Rene!
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>'Construct state'. It is a different category from 'case'.
Doesn't "state" also have "definite" and "indefinite", and/or
possibly "specific/referential" and "nonspecific/nonreferential", as values? Or is
that true only in some languages with a "construct state", but not in, for
instance, Arabic? Or am I just confused?
>In Arabic, nouns are inflected for both: state and case, so you can
>have a word in construct state in genitive case (which Arabic also
>has).
I wasn't aware of that! What're a few good uses of nouns in construct state
and genitive case simultaneously?
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eldin
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