Re : Question
From: | From Http://Members.Aol.Com/Lassailly/Tunuframe.Html <lassailly@...> |
Date: | Friday, June 25, 1999, 19:19 |
Dans un courrier dat=E9 du 24/06/99 06:31:52 , Nik a =E9crit :
> In my ancestral language, Old Kassi', there was a suffix, -(h)e', that I
> call "completive". It indicates that the verb is "completed". Some
> examples are piha's (learn), pihase' (know); ke"lo's (stab), ke"lose'
> (stab to death). Is that a legitimate term, or should I use another
> term?
it is at least the term i know to refer to the distinction you make yourself =
:
there are verbs expiring with an implied, specific, final, completive state=20
(in my books this final result is considered as a prospective final role, bu=
t=20
that's semantic so i know it's irrelevant to your question :-) and other=20
verbs that don't : to learn is an attempt to acquire knowledge and dying=20
(usually) ends up with being dead, while stabbing may result in plenty or no=20
result. the resultative of to learn is to know and of dying is to be dead. t=
o=20
stab to death implies a different semantic definition of the verb "to stab",=20
i.e., you imply a result. actually, maybe i'm wrong but i've noticed that=20
english verbs deriving from tools (like "to stab") rarely feature a=20
completive state (no need to say those deriving from items, states or result=
s=20
always do ;-).
your question is very interesting : what is, and how to name, the final stat=
e=20
of a verb not semanticly featuring a specific final state ? like to run, to=20
think, etc.. since completive is an "intro-perfective" implied in the=20
semantic definition of a verb as Boudewijn sums it up, why not try=20
"extro-perfective" ? :-)
mathias