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Re : Question

From:From Http://Members.Aol.Com/Lassailly/Tunuframe.Html <lassailly@...>
Date:Friday, June 25, 1999, 19:19
Dans un courrier dat=E9 du 24/06/99 06:31:52  , Nik a =E9crit :

> In my ancestral language, Old Kassi', there was a suffix, -(h)e', that I > call "completive". It indicates that the verb is "completed". Some > examples are piha's (learn), pihase' (know); ke"lo's (stab), ke"lose' > (stab to death). Is that a legitimate term, or should I use another > term?
it is at least the term i know to refer to the distinction you make yourself = : there are verbs expiring with an implied, specific, final, completive state=20 (in my books this final result is considered as a prospective final role, bu= t=20 that's semantic so i know it's irrelevant to your question :-) and other=20 verbs that don't : to learn is an attempt to acquire knowledge and dying=20 (usually) ends up with being dead, while stabbing may result in plenty or no=20 result. the resultative of to learn is to know and of dying is to be dead. t= o=20 stab to death implies a different semantic definition of the verb "to stab",=20 i.e., you imply a result. actually, maybe i'm wrong but i've noticed that=20 english verbs deriving from tools (like "to stab") rarely feature a=20 completive state (no need to say those deriving from items, states or result= s=20 always do ;-). your question is very interesting : what is, and how to name, the final stat= e=20 of a verb not semanticly featuring a specific final state ? like to run, to=20 think, etc.. since completive is an "intro-perfective" implied in the=20 semantic definition of a verb as Boudewijn sums it up, why not try=20 "extro-perfective" ? :-) mathias