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Re: Verbs in Orelynna

From:Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>
Date:Monday, February 9, 2004, 22:14
On Saturday, February 7, 2004, at 10:05  AM, Mark J. Reed wrote:
> On Fri, Feb 06, 2004 at 11:46:52PM -0600, Thomas R. Wier wrote: >> Why do you have distinct masculine and feminine first person markers? >> That's rather marked; how'd they arise? > > Doesn't Arabic have that as well? > -Mark
I don't think so... I'm pretty sure Arabic, like Hebrew, doesn't distinguish masculine and feminine first person markers. Sometimes you have to distinguish, but that's only because you're not using a first-person marker but just a 'singular' marker instead. -Stephen (Steg) "sleep is for the weak."