Re: Verbs in Orelynna
|From:||Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>|
|Date:||Monday, February 9, 2004, 22:14|
On Saturday, February 7, 2004, at 10:05 AM, Mark J. Reed wrote:
> On Fri, Feb 06, 2004 at 11:46:52PM -0600, Thomas R. Wier wrote:
>> Why do you have distinct masculine and feminine first person markers?
>> That's rather marked; how'd they arise?
> Doesn't Arabic have that as well?
I don't think so...
I'm pretty sure Arabic, like Hebrew, doesn't distinguish masculine and
feminine first person markers. Sometimes you have to distinguish, but
that's only because you're not using a first-person marker but just a
'singular' marker instead.
"sleep is for the weak."