Re: Verbs in Orelynna
| From: | Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...> |
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| Date: | Monday, February 9, 2004, 22:14 |
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On Saturday, February 7, 2004, at 10:05 AM, Mark J. Reed wrote:
> On Fri, Feb 06, 2004 at 11:46:52PM -0600, Thomas R. Wier wrote:
>> Why do you have distinct masculine and feminine first person markers?
>> That's rather marked; how'd they arise?
>
> Doesn't Arabic have that as well?
> -Mark
I don't think so...
I'm pretty sure Arabic, like Hebrew, doesn't distinguish masculine and
feminine first person markers. Sometimes you have to distinguish, but
that's only because you're not using a first-person marker but just a
'singular' marker instead.
-Stephen (Steg)
"sleep is for the weak."