Re: inverse constructions
From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, November 10, 1999, 23:07 |
"Thomas R. Wier" wrote:
> I wouldn't call English's genitive a "case", per se.
You may be right there. Then in that case, English *nouns* would have
no morphological case, while pronouns would have three (pronoun's
genitive seems to be more of a real case.)
> Don't forget
> English's moribund objective case (it's there -- just not everywhere)
> -- that would still give English two morphological cases.
Well, I was talking about English NOUNS, objective only exists in
pronouns.
> Non cuicumque datum est habere nasum.
> It is not given to just anyone to have a nose.
> -- Martial
What's that mean?
--
"Old linguists never die - they just come to voiceless stops." -
anonymous
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