Re: I meant that...
| From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
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| Date: | Monday, January 8, 2001, 23:12 |
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Tero Vilkesalo wrote:
>
> I read again my message and saw that it was a little unclear. I don't know
> why they use x for sh-sound in Catalonia and parts of Latin America (Mexico,
> I think). I was trying to say that I use them for convenience myself. :)
Because in Old Spanish (and Modern Portuguese, incidentally), {x} was
the "sh" sound, and {j} the "zh" sound, {x} was often derived from Latin
{x}, thru the change /ks/ -> /js/ -> /S/, e.g., "dixit" /diksit/ ->
/dikse/ -> /dijse/ -> /diSe/ -> /dixe/ ("dije")
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