Re: Furrin phones in my own lect!

staving Mark J Reed:

>That is indeed an infamous feature of German (and Slavic) accents.
>And I totally get the substitution of [v] for [w] when the L1 has no
>[w]. But the reverse phenomenon (use of [w] for |v|) confuses me.
>Does that really happen outside of Hollywood accents?  If so, why?
>Hypercorrection?
L1 German speakers among my colleagues usually pronounce English [v] as
[w]. Hypercorrection is the only explanation I can think of for it.

Pete