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From:Peter Clark <peter-clark@...>
Date:Monday, September 16, 2002, 20:08
    First off, what's the opposite of tonogenesis? That is, the process by which
tones die out in a language. Second, are there certain conditions which would
lead to such an event? Are there any atonal languages today which are believed
to have at one point been tonal? (Would ancient Greek count as tonal, or just
pitch accent?) While I'm at it, would someone care to define the difference
between pitch accent and tone?


P. M. Arktayg <pmva@...>
Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>
bnathyuw <bnathyuw@...>
daniel andreasson <danielandreasson@...>