Re: THEORY: Th- words (was: RE: THEORY: Question: Bound Morphemes)
| From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
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| Date: | Saturday, July 3, 1999, 18:09 |
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FFlores wrote:
> Why is it that they're pronounced with /D/?
Well, in Old English, [D] and [T] were allophones. Presumably, forms
like [T&t] frequently occurred between vowels, and, being unstressed,
had a tendency to assimilate into [D&t], in much the same way as "de" is
frequently [De] in Spanish when occurring after a vowel.
--
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