> Date: Fri, 2 Jul 1999 22:57:23 -0300
> From: FFlores <fflores@...>
> The author I read used this as a kind of evidence favoring the idea
> that the difference between formal and content words can be
> reflected by specific phonological features. What do y'all think?
Phrase it like this: Some function words occured unstressed so often
that they got initial /D/ instead of /T/ when the phonemes 'split'.
And the function words in th- are enough of a category in English
(demonstratives and similar) for analogy to level them all to /D/.
And *poof* your magical function-word marking feature goes away.
Lars Mathiesen (U of Copenhagen CS Dep) <thorinn@...> (Humour NOT marked)