Re: CHAT French undies (was: Re: Linguistic Terminology)
From: | Raymond A. Brown <raybrown@...> |
Date: | Thursday, January 7, 1999, 6:59 |
This thread seems to be getting nowhere. But before I dies, I like to
clear up a couple of possible misunderstandings.
At 6:30 pm -0600 6/1/99, Tom Wier wrote:
>Raymond A. Brown wrote:
......
>> Tried figuring - but though I could understand a 'spelling pronunciation'
>> of {rie} as "righ" [raj], it still puzzles me how {rie} could be mistaken
>> for {ray} ;-)
>
>I didn't say it was spelling pronunciation --
Never claimed that anyone did say that. I merely observed that I could
understand a 'spelling pronunciation', that's all.
Indeed, I said that such a pronunciation would give [raj] *not* [rej],
therefore I conclude, correctly I believe, that the American pronunciation
is not a spelling pronunciation and never suggested it was.
As for the American and southern English /&/, I have no doubt there are
some differences, particularly as there are variations within both
communities also. I believe some New England varieties (Maine perhaps?)
are not very different from the /&/ I use. But I see little point in
persuing this.
Ray.