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CONLANG Digest - 30 Oct 2000 to 31 Oct 2000 (#2000-298)

From:Muke Tever <alrivera@...>
Date:Wednesday, November 1, 2000, 14:12
> From: Robert Hailman <robert@...> > Subject: Re: YAC: or more exactly: yet another conlang sketch > > > If I decide on { rijna } then it could be pronounced either [rijna] > > or [rejna] depending on dialect. Hmm... > > You may be on to something there. A dialectical change of [ij] to [ej] > could be interesting. Why don't you try it out with sample setances and > see how it goes? It's really up to you, though...
Oh, I've got this! Proto-Hadwan *ej becomes Hadwan i: [ij before vowels], but in the eastern language (I need names for these...) it becomes ?e: [?ej before vowels]. So you would have Hadwan ?hi:s, ?xi:s, where eastern ?xe:s or ?xejis from PH *xej- 'hook'. (? = uncreated form)
> From: John Cowan <jcowan@...> > Subject: Re: YAC: or more exactly: yet another conlang sketch > > Irina Rempt wrote: > > > [...] 'c@ciul@', the latter > > being the little bow above the 'a' occurring in Romanian, which > > should be instead of the shwa symbols in the word for it. > > "Breve" in English. It's used in Vietnamese, too.
I thought the Romanian sign was a circumflex?
> From: Carlos Thompson <carlos_thompson@...> > Subject: Re: Pronouncing "Boreanesia" (was: Kristian's name) > > In Kirsh /R/ is r flavored schwa, that vowel in "center" /sEntR/. In > X-SAMPA, american rotic schwa is represented as /@`/, a schwa with a > retroflex diacritic, which I had also seen as /r=/ (syllabic r). In > SAMPA /R/ represents the voiced uvular fricative (French <r>).
X-SAMPA's /`/ is defined as retroflexy for consonants and rhoticity for vowels. (Indeed, it seems that its use for the rhotic mark is defined first.)
> From: "LeoMoser(Acadon@Acadon.com)" <acadon@...> > Subject: The Combos [hj] [hw] and [gw] in Conlangs > > This would imply that [gw-] may not be very > common beyond the western European area. > > Am I missing something? I would guess > that some of the other major languages of > the world have it.
Well, Proto-Indo-European had *kw, *gw (or *k'w), and *ghw (or *gw), which seem to have delabialized (or develarized) everywhere except in Latin, Germanic, and Hittite, so sounds of those type don't appear to be very stable. (Even in English it's mostly /w/ and /kw/ now.) (Yes, in Hadwan, *kw *gw and *ghw became delabialized also, = k/g/g.)
> From: Eric Christopherson <raccoon@...> > Subject: Re: Hiatus within words > > > I've never heard the native pronunciation of "Hawai'i" or "Maui"-- but > > theoretically, historically, they should be 4 and 3 syllables
respectively.
> > Hawai'i = other PN Sawa iki 'little Sawa' (the traditional homeland) -- > > since PH /s/ can correspond to Malay/Javanese /j/ (dZ), it has often
been
> > proposed that Sawa = Java (but nooooo, or at least, not likely). IIRC > > "Maui" corresponds to others ma'ui, and indeed to NZ maori, *ma+qudip > > 'alive; to live'. > > From the spelling and etymology, it seems reasonable to me to assume
<Hawai'i>
> should be pronounced something like /ha.wa.i.?i/. In any case, it really > annoys me when people say /ha.wa.?i/, since I figure they should at least
be
> pronouncing the other /i/ in there, whether there's a glottal stop or
hiatus
> or what. Myself, I go with /h@wa.i/ or more probably /h@waji/.
Odd. I would never have thought of /ha.wa.i.?i/... usually if there's an /?/ in it at all it'd be /ha.waI.?i/. I forget how [friend from Hawai'i] pronounces it. *Muke! -- http://muke.twu.net/