Re: THEORY: [i:]=[ij]? (was Re: Pronouncing "Boreanesia")

Kristian Jensen wrote:
>
> Steg Belsky wrote:
> >I've never heard "Yiddish" with /i/....it's always ['jIdIS] (with a
> >flapped /d/, it sounds like).
>
> Really? Is that so? I have always pronounced it with /i/. If that's
> so then forget those examples and look at the word "yeast". This is
> /jist/, no? Not /jIst/.
Yes, "yeast" is /jist/.

> > Hence the orthographic {dd} to mark the
> >preceding {i} as short /I/, and not long /aj/ - waitasec....if it was /i/
> >it'd be written {Yeedish}, wouldn't it?  The only time i've heard
> >anything approaching [jidiS] is in Yiddish itself, which doesn't
> >distinguish between the sounds [i] and [I].
>
> Well, orthography and foreign names don't always mix too well. Just look at
> those French loanwords in English. They are not always spelled the way they
> are pronounced. I have for instance found in the dictionary under <c> the
> following examples: crêpe, corset, cortége, connoisseur, cologne, cognac.
I've noticed that foreign words from languages that use a Latinate
orthography tend to keep their spelling in English, whereas words from
other languages are written the same way they would be in English.

--
Robert