Re: THEORY: [i:]=[ij]? (was Re: Pronouncing "Boreanesia")

Steg Belsky wrote:
>I've never heard "Yiddish" with /i/....it's always ['jIdIS] (with a
>flapped /d/, it sounds like).
Really? Is that so? I have always pronounced it with /i/. If that's
so then forget those examples and look at the word "yeast". This is
/jist/, no? Not /jIst/.

> Hence the orthographic {dd} to mark the
>preceding {i} as short /I/, and not long /aj/ - waitasec....if it was /i/
>it'd be written {Yeedish}, wouldn't it?  The only time i've heard
>anything approaching [jidiS] is in Yiddish itself, which doesn't
>distinguish between the sounds [i] and [I].
Well, orthography and foreign names don't always mix too well. Just look at
those French loanwords in English. They are not always spelled the way they
are pronounced. I have for instance found in the dictionary under <c> the
following examples: crêpe, corset, cortége, connoisseur, cologne, cognac.

-kristian- 8)