Re: THEORY: [i:]=[ij]? (was Re: Pronouncing "Boreanesia")

On Fri, Nov 03, 2000 at 01:57:19PM +0200, Dan Sulani wrote:
> On 3 Nov, Eric Christopherson wrote:
>
> >The phonetics book I mentioned earlier uses /y/ for a palatal fricative,
> used in
> >Spanish (it's a Spanish phonetics book). I'm not sure really how a palatal
> >approximant and a palatal fricative would sound in comparison with each
> >other, though.
>
>     As I understand it, the fricative would have a lot of
> "white-noise" type sound associated with it, like the
> "static" sound you hear on an FM radio that's not picking
> up any stations. An approximant would have a whole lot less,
> if any,  of that sound.
>     I'm sorry that I can't tell you how Spanish handles palatal
> sounds. Any Spanish speakers care to comment?
Thanks, but actually I knew what an approximant was already; I just
temporarily took leave of my senses when I wrote that :) I forgot that [j]
is a palatal approximant, and I do notice a difference between [j] and the
fricative.

--
Eric Christopherson / *Aiworegs Ghristobhorosyo