Re: THEORY: [i:]=[ij]? (was Re: Pronouncing "Boreanesia")

On Thu, 2 Nov 2000 12:54:37 +0200 Dan Sulani <dnsulani@...>
writes:
> In Hebrew, as pronounced in Israel, when /j/ appears  _before_  /i/,
> the /j/ is always dropped. Thus, an Israeli would say  /idiS/ when
> referring to the lang.
> Dan Sulani
-

I picked up that habit from my 6th-8th grade Hebrew teacher, but it seems
only when conjugating _nif`al_ verbs in the future... for instance, i
say:

[hu jixtoB] in _pa`al_
([B] comes from the influence of 4 years of Spanish and the high
percentage of Syrians in my highschool class, who have no "vet")

and

[hu (?)ik:ateB] in _nif`al_.


Some of my later Hebrew teachers wouldn't understand what i was saying
and would ask me to repeat myself whenever i used a male-3s-future-nif`al
form.
The teacher who i picked up this pronounciation from also gave me the
gemination of the /k/ in the above example.  I remember asking her if
it's supposed to be [ji] or [(?)i] and she said something along the lines
of  "both are used, so it doesn't matter".  The non-[j] one sounded more
interesting, so i kept on using it. :-)


-Stephen (Steg)
 "...eitein gam ferret..."