Re: Why grammar is so complex a subject
| From: | Andreas Johansson <andjo@...> |
| Date: | Saturday, December 31, 2005, 12:45 |
Quoting R A Brown <ray@...>:
> I would, however, question whether there was ever a time when _hominids_
> did not have language.
Unfortunately, the term "hominid" does not have a single, agreed-on definition.
Since all the great apes (incl humans) are today usually united in the single
family Hominidae, it should properly mean simply "great ape", but that's
obviously not what you mean. The most common use today is probably as a synonym
to homini_n_, that is a creature closer to modern humans than to chimps on the
family tree.
It seems to me very unlikely that early hominins - with non-sunken larynxes,
chimp-sized brains, and probably without the elaborate neural apparatus to
control breathing of modern humans - could have had language.
(In fact, said neural apparatus does not seem to've been in place until very
late - even H. erectus lacks the expanded spinal cord canal to accomodate the
extra nerves.)
Since the discussion has mostly concerned Neanderthals, I however suspect you
have some even more restricted meaning in mind.
Andreas
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