Re: Why grammar is so complex a subject

Quoting Gary Shannon <fiziwig@...>:

> --- Andreas Johansson <andjo@...> wrote:
>
> > Quoting R A Brown <ray@...>:
> >
> > > I would, however, question whether there was ever
> > a time when _hominids_
> > > did not have language.
> >
> > Unfortunately, the term "hominid" does not have a
> > single, agreed-on definition.
>
> My only argument is this: (And it does not depend on
> the definition of "hominid" or any other term);
>
> 1. There was a time in the distant past when no living
> creature had sophisticated language.
>
> 2. At the present time at least one living creature,
> man, has sophisticated language.
>
> 3. That did not happen overnight, but came about as
> the result of a period of increasing sophistication in
> the manner and content of communication. Therefore, it
> follows, seemingly incontrovertably, that there was,
> during that period of emergence, a time when
> communication was still at a primative level.
I was in no way addressing this argument, only pointing out the lack of
precision in Ray's statement, but for the record I quite agree. Humans seem to
be neurologically hardwired to acquire and use language - that sort of complex
adaptions simply do not arise overnight.

                                              Andreas

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