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Re: vowel harmony

From:Tristan Mc Leay <conlang@...>
Date:Tuesday, November 22, 2005, 2:23
On Mon, 2005-11-21 at 19:57 -0500, Kit La Touche wrote:
> it seems to me likely that lexical items preserve a pattern like > this, which is called harmony for largely historical reasons, but > that affixation wouldn't be vowel-harmonic, simply because speakers > wouldn't have enough evidence that it's a harmony pattern when > acquiring the language to keep it that way. harrison is doing > research on this at the moment - i don't know whether he's published > anything about it yet or not. he's a specialist in siberian turkic > languages, tuvan particularly, so i should ask him about modern > mongolian. (he teaches at my school.)
I would be interested to hear anything. I'm just basing that on the Wikipedia article on the same, which is all I know about Mongolian, and which is rather thin and potentially of dubious quality. It only says that "all the vowels of the word" must be the same, and doesn't mention anything about vowel harmony in the minuscule section on grammar. (It does, however, observe that "short /o/ is phonetically [8]" (i.e. close-mid central rounded), but given that all vowels exist in length-distinguished pairs, and nothing is mentioned about the phonetics of /o:/, one assumes /o:/ is back, approx. [o:].)
> then again, there's finnish, which has frontness-harmony, with the > vowels [y], [ø], [æ] as front and [u], [o] and [A] as back (pardon > the mix of SAMPA and IPA). the vowels [i] and [e] are neutral. yet > how would an infant acquiring the language pick up on this? there is > a somewhat weak featural way of describing the difference, i guess. > hm. musings.
I imagine in large just because that's just the way it is. People seem to be pretty flexible when it comes to learning the intricacies of language. Also, it seems to be more than just a lexical-type process like noun genders, it's rather a neutralisation of phonemes in unstressed syllables. As I understand it, Finns don't even hear/produce the difference between [y] and [u] there e.g. "olymia" is for most people pronounced ["olumpia], not *["olympia] (I gather it's something along the lines of "lama" vs "yama" for "llama" in English, except phonologically motivated). No doubt we can blame the absence of /M 7/ in stressed syllables for the neutral behavior of /i e/. So if Finns don't pick up on/use [+/- front] in unstressed syllables, and if there is no [-back +high -rounded +short] phoneme, then [+high -rounded +short] has no choice but to equal /i/, whereas [+low -rounded +short], which remains ambiguous, is given a final interpretation based on the syllable's stressed vowel. -- Tristan.

Replies

Kit La Touche <kit@...>
Herman Miller <hmiller@...>