| From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Wednesday, May 7, 2008, 9:10 |
On Wed, May 7, 2008 at 4:56 AM, <MorphemeAddict@...> wrote:> What's the grammar and meaning of the Spanish phrase "me da feliz"? > > It seems to me to be ill-formed, since "feliz" is an adjective.yeah, because idioms are never "ill-formed" by prescriptive grammar rules... ? -- Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>