| From: | <morphemeaddict@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Wednesday, May 7, 2008, 10:52 |
In a message dated 5/7/2008 04:13:09 AM Central Daylight Time, markjreed@MAIL.COM writes:> > What's the grammar and meaning of the Spanish phrase "me da feliz"? > > > > It seems to me to be ill-formed, since "feliz" is an adjective. > > yeah, because idioms are never "ill-formed" by prescriptive grammar rules... > ? >So is it just an idiom then? And does it mean "makes me happy"? stevo </HTML>
| Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |