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Re: Indo-European question

From:Andreas Johansson <and_yo@...>
Date:Sunday, June 17, 2001, 16:46
Tom Tadfor Little wrote:
>Pat wrote: >>I just ordered a dictionary of Indo-European roots to play with, and I >>started wondering -- how did we get inflectional endings? >> >>Were they originally postpositions which became attached to the nouns? > >I used to wonder the same thing. I eventually learned that the question >itself harbors a bias--modern English speakers encounter inflections when >studying foreign languages, and so see them as something alien that must be >explained. Sometimes languages become more inflected as they evolve, >sometimes they become less inflected. The process you are describing can >and does happen, but unless there is specific evidence to argue that it >happened in some particular case, there's no reason not to regard >inflections as just as primordial as other features of the language. In >dealing with a reconstructed language like Proto-Indo-European, it's not >easy to track the history of the inflectional system back to some kind of >specific origin, any more than it is to say where a specific root "came >from". > >In _The World's Major Languages_, the article on Indo-European reports a >hypothesis that Proto-Indo-European was once an isolating language, >gradually developing its inflections (the suggestion is that the nominative >and accusative differentiated early (as ergative/absolutive), with the >endings apparently arbitrary. Later, the oblique cases developed, possibly >as you suggest, from adverbs and particles fusing onto the noun stems. I >don't know how widely accepted this hypothesis is.
In most articles etc that I've read on the genesis of human speech th author seems to assume that "Proto-World" was isolating, and did at the earliest stage lack any means for expressing number, case, tense etc - it'd've consisted only of stems strung together to form rough sentences, along the lines of "I hunt fox"="I hunt/hunted/will hunt fox(es)". If this is correct, inflection really is something "later that must be explained", but I don't know whether this view is commonly accepted among linguists. Andreas _________________________________________________________________________ Get Your Private, Free E-mail from MSN Hotmail at http://www.hotmail.com.

Replies

Lars Henrik Mathiesen <thorinn@...>
Raymond Brown <ray.brown@...>glossogenesis (was: Indo-European question)
Tom Tadfor Little <tom@...>