Re: Indo-European question
| From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
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| Date: | Tuesday, June 19, 2001, 1:10 |
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jesse stephen bangs wrote:
> More Linguistic Urban Legends: I had a Spanish teacher who insisted that
> the [T] in Castilian Spanish arose because of a king that had a lisp, and
> insisted that everyone around him talk the same way. This is absurd
> enough that it falls apart right away--there are still plenty of [s]'s in
> Castilian Spanish, and so that king must have had an awfully selective
> lisp.
Yeah, I've heard that story too. Awful odd that he consistently
pronounced the *letter* {s} as /s/, but {z/c} as /T/. Besides, I'd
think that king wouldn't appreciate people mimicking him. :-)
--
Cenedl heb iaith, cenedl heb galon
A nation without a language is a nation without a heart - Welsh proverb
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