Re: PolyF and question

Jeff wrote:
<<
Examples illustrating aspects:
1. halen  "I ran."
2. hâlen  "I was running."
3. haulen  "I have run."
4. hailen  "I'm about to run."

My question is whether or not these stems look or sound too similar.
 >>

I don't know how "â" is supposed to be pronounced, but I'm
guessing [&] (and standard for the rest).  I'll assume that for the
rest.

There certainly can be a stage in a language where this is a
distinction.  If the vowels are distinct, and the diphthongs are
distinct, then they are distinct, and can be used as such.  So if
a language has a given number of stages, then at at least one
point in its existence, there can be a stage where these are
distinct.

Bearing that in mind, I suppose the real question is can these
remain distinct forever.  I suppose it depends.  If I were a speaker
of this language, and I spoke it with a bunch of other me-like
speakers, then I think the following would happen:

1. halen
2. hâlen <-> haulen
3. hailen

That is, the imperfective and retrospective would come to be
indistinguishable in pronunciation.  That's just my opinion.  If
this were your orthography, though, I can imagine that this
would be something that kids would have to learn by rote, so
that they'd learn:

"halen", perfective: ['ha.len]
"hâlen", imperfective: ['h&.len]
"haulen", retrospective: ['h&.len]
"hailen", prospective: ['hai.len]

And I'm sure kids would make mistakes:

Complete the Dialog Below:
A: Have you ever run a marathon?
B: Yes, hâlen a marathon.

Teacher: Not "hâlen", "haulen".

I could also see a German/Frenchy-type merger like that below:

1. halen
2. hâlen <-> hailen
3. haulen

Which are pronounced:

1. halen ['ha.len]
2. hâlen/hailen ['he.len]
3. haulen ['ho.len]

So you could go a number of ways with it.  Provided that first
syllable is the most prominent, though, I don't see why at some
stage of the language you shouldn't have them distinct.

-David
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