Re: Supposed Celtic semiticisms
| From: | damien perrotin <erwan.arskoul@...> |
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| Date: | Saturday, January 29, 2005, 1:27 |
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Skrivet gant Rodlox:
>----- Original Message -----
>From: "Ray Brown" <ray.brown@...>
>To: <CONLANG@...>
>Sent: Friday, January 28, 2005 8:58 PM
>Subject: Re: Supposed Celtic semiticisms
>
>
>
>>The question nevertheless remains as to why these developments took place
>>in Ireland & Britain.
>>
>>
>
> coincidence?
>
>
>
not necessarily. The loss of neuter is a consequence of the loss of
desinences under the influence of a strong accent which was probably
common to both branches of Celtic (note that Latin also experienced it).
Besides, there might have been a kind of limited sprachbund between
Western Brythonnic and Gaelic which would explain the mutations and the
shift to VSO. Remember that modern celtic tongues are spoken in areas
which were subject to Irish inluences durung the Dark Ages (Cornwall,
Wales), or come from regions which were (Breton)