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Re: THEORY: Mixed erg/acc

From:The Gray Wizard <dbell@...>
Date:Saturday, March 11, 2000, 11:28
> From: Matt Pearson > > >I have a question about langs that use ergative/absolutive > >for all sentences, except for 1st and 2nd person, which > >use nominative/accusative (e. g. Dyirbal and my G'amah). > > > >Does this mean that > > > >a) the 1st and 2nd person pronouns are marked NOM or ACC > > while the other argument is marked ABS or ERG, respectively, > >OR > >b) when the subject is 1st and 2nd person, it's marked NOM > > while the object is ACC? > > Alternative (a). If the transitive subject is 1st/2nd person and > the object is non-1st/2nd, then the subject is in the NOM form > and the object is in the ACC form (i.e. both are unmarked). If > the transitive subject is non-1st/2nd and the object is 1st/2nd, > then the subject is in the ERG form and the object is in the NOM > form (i.e. both are marked).
While the marking is correct, the analysis I've seen is slightly different in Dyirbal. Speech-act pronouns (1st and 2nd person) in A-function (transitive subject) take the unmarked nom, and the marked acc (-na) in P-function (transitive object). Other pronouns and nouns take the marked erg (-ngu) in A-function and the unmarked absol in P-function. So your first example would be A=NOM/P=ABSOL - both still unmarked, your second would be A=ERG/P=ACC - both still marked. Dixon in his Dyirbal Grammar goes into some detail as to why this is the more appropriate analysis. I could dig it up if any are interested. S-function arguments (intransitive subjects) are always unmarked, BTW. David Who is hopelessly behind in reading this list but couldn't resist reading anything with "erg" in the subject line.