Re: Weekly Vocab 6: to know
|From:||Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>|
|Date:||Thursday, May 8, 2003, 18:22|
On Wed, May 07, 2003 at 02:29:21PM -0700, Joe Fatula wrote:
> > True enough. Whenever an infinitive for "modal can" is called for,
> > "to be able to" is used. "To can" refers to the process of putting things
> > in cans. :)
> And it's pronounced differently, too, so it's certainly a different word.
> Just like "have" /h&v/ and "have" /h&_rf/, analogous to Spanish "tener" and
Maybe in your idiolect that's true, but I don't think it's true
generally. At least, it's not true for me. As I say them,
the only differences between the two uses of "have" and "can"
come from emphasis; most of the time, the main verb is emphasized,
not the modal, so the vowel in the modal gets reduced to a schwa or
even disappears. But whenever the modal is emphasized, for whatever
reason, it sounds identical to the spelled-alike verb in my pronunciation.
So, for instance, all of these "can"s sound alike (specifically, like
Can you can?
Yes, I can!
Ah, but can you Can-Can?
As do both of these "have"s ([h&v]):
I have done it.
I have it.